can you explain why it won't be 1/2. There is only two set (B,B) and (B,G). (G,B) will be same as (B,G) and (G,G) won't come into the picture because one of them is boy. So, probability will be 1/2. If not then give me ur reasoning.
Posts : 3 Join date : 2010-03-13 Location : Bangalore
Lucifer, Amit, If I understand the problem correctly, number of kids is fixed to 2 and just "one of them" is a boy. In that case, we have three possibilities for the kids (say A and B)
A | B Boy | Girl Boy | Boy Girl | Boy
So, isnt it obvious that odds of both being boys is 1/3
Posts : 5 Join date : 2010-03-11 Location : Bangalore
There is difference. Question says "One of them is boy" So "A" can be boy or "B" can be boy. ( B,G and G,B are different cases) or Both of them. That's why answer is 1/3